The NLT and NASB are both very good modern English Bible translations, but their renderings of 1 John 1:1 are different. Is there any loss of meaning in reordering the Greek text of 1 John 1:1 to make it more readable in modern English?
The NLT and NASB are both very good modern English Bible translations, but their renderings of 1 John 1:1 are different. Is there any loss of meaning in reordering the Greek text of 1 John 1:1 to make it more readable in modern English?